While I also question the relative worth of simply and only repealing DADT, I do so for different reasons.
There was an earlier, WW1-era ban on gays in the military. DADT modified that earlier policy. But doesn't repealing DADT cause the earlier ban to take force once again? Does it depend on the wording in DADT and how it modified the earlier ban? It looks like two steps forward, three steps back to me.
Percy