As Doug pointed out in one of his earliest posts on this thread, the whole dispute is generated by those whose moral sensibilities are roughed up by "speculation" and who think "production" is good. That is, the distinction is precisely a moral not an economic distinction, and moral distinctions are grounded in a false epistemology -- that is they assume that moral statements can be grounded and they can't.
Carroil
^^^^^^ CB: Doesn't Marx make a non-moralistic distinction between M-C-M1 and M-M1 ? The latter is fictitious capital accumulation , I believe. Is fictitious capital speculative investment ?