Umm, why, again? Iris Chapman certainly doesn't bother to tell us. I mean, how are they any different than abortions obtained for reasons of convenience, economics, etc.? Can someone out there explain this? Why does polite liberal society hold some choices (actually, all but this one, I think) to be more equal than others?
-- "Hige sceal þe heardra, heorte þe cenre, mod sceal þe mare, þe ure mægen lytlað."