It's hard to see how a document prepared by slave-owners, merchants, bankers, lawyers and the like could be "revolutionary bourgeois".
>For 500 years prior to 1776 this was one of the touchstones of freedom
>against feudalism and hierocracy, particularly in those towns that could
>have early features of bourgeois democratic freedom.
>In the revolutionary American War of Independence it was crucial to the
>overthrow of British colonialism.
This sounds like pure romantic fantasy. Care to back it up?
The 2nd Amendment was meant to provide arms for members of a "well-regulated militia", which was "necessary to the security of a free state", not for "all citizens". It's curious that the term "well-regulated" is taken to mean "indiscriminate".