>I should probably point out why I was looking for more info today on
>inequality. In Pagina1 12, the Argentinian left daily, a report came out
>from an establishment consulting firm (FIEL)that the income share of the
>top 10% is 49.3% and not 37 as stated by Indec, the official agency in
>Argentina . Any comments on this?
What definition of income? In U.S. pretax, posttransfer distribution in 1997, the top 20% had 49.4% of income, and the top 5%, 21.7%. They don't publish decile info, but around 38-40% isn't an ureasonable guess. Sounds like Argentina is very concentrated, since the U.S. is always the most unequal in the LIS rankings except for Russia.
Doug