>He probably was arguing like Keynes , on the "pure" economic element.
I don't know how many times this point has to be made: the reason Nazi Germany could tolerate full employment was because of severe political repression. There's no separating the "economic" and the "political." Do I have to quote Kalecki again on this?
>As to China's current economic policy, the facts you cite don't
>amount to an argument that the current government in China is not
>remotely admirable. What would be the circumstance of the workers
>you mention if they didn't work for pennies ? Would they be even
>poorer as peasants or in some other status ?
If any government other than China's were involved, you'd be condemning it. Try substituting "Brazil" or "India" for "China," and see if it feels any different.
Doug