>Yes, to the extent that workers are not hired if sv is inadequate vis a
>vis accumulation requirements (this shortage being the result of capital
>developing the productive forces as if the only limit were human needs
>instead of profits) and thus cannnot be a source of effective
>demand, their resulting poverty and restricted poverty become the
>proximate, not ultimate, cause of overproduction crises. If I remember
>correctly, note the line immediately previous to what you have quoted
>here where Marx argues that the employment of workers and thus their
>effective demand is dependent on the profitability of production. As
>Mattick argues, the shortage of surplus value is the ultimate
>cause of crisis in Marx's theory despite a few passages here and there
>(this being the most cited one) that only seem to contradict this
>argument.
>
>yrs, rb
I write:
Rakesh, aren't these flip sides of the same coin, different moments in a unified totality, blah de blah ... when workers are exploited in the capitalist labor process they at one and same time leasing their labor-power in exchange for wages (ultimately insufficient to allow expanded reproduction) and creating the to-be-appropriated surplus value (also ultimately to allow expanded reproduction) ... in looking for an "ultimate cause," aren't you approaching the problem too positivistically and too diachronically (I may be way off, please correct me if so) ...
John Gulick