>I have a hypothetical question, relating to some of Brad's comments on
>China as well as this discussion. Suppose that a society had an equal
>distribution of income. Real GDP per capital could increase X% by
>throwing Y% into poverty. Much of the debate about globalization, the new
>economy, .... seems to reflect thinking about this question.
Eh? How could you throw Y% into poverty if you have an equal distribution of income? You mean per capita GDP increases because (100-Y)% gain while Y stays stagnant? Meaning an increase in relative, though not absolute, poverty? Or what?
Doug