As I said before, the main reason for my question is this: I've read a lot of stuff on the left which claims that rising income inequality means that people have lost ground economically over where they were 10, 15, or 20 years ago. The authors usually mean individuals. Another incarnation: individuals work harder for less purchasing power, so the standard of living for most people has declined over the last 2 decades.
This might be correct, or it might not be. I'm interested in the narrow answer to this narrow question.
This says nothing about whether or not capitalist relations are "good." It says nothing about whether or not workers are exploited. It says nothing about whether or not I think immigrants are people, for goodness sake.
Brett