Why Decry the Wealth Gap?

Doug Henwood dhenwood at panix.com
Tue Jan 25 11:54:01 PST 2000


Brett Knowlton wrote:


>Why is it so hard to get a simple question to a simple answer?

Postmodernist.


> From my
>last attempt, I thought this might happen, which is why I tried to preface
>the question with a statement of how I feel about the larger issue of
>inequality. But it didn't help.
>
>As I said before, the main reason for my question is this: I've read a lot
>of stuff on the left which claims that rising income inequality means that
>people have lost ground economically over where they were 10, 15, or 20
>years ago. The authors usually mean individuals.

No they don't; they're usually referring to income classes, like quintiles, or averages (like median income or average hourly wage). Most individuals experience rising real incomes as they progress from their early 20s to their late 50s/early 60s. Steven Rose has argued to the contrary, but I think his findings are controversial.


> Another incarnation:
>individuals work harder for less purchasing power, so the standard of
>living for most people has declined over the last 2 decades.

Real U.S. household median income is pretty flat over the last 20-25 years, though more people are working (per household, and as a share of the adult population).

Doug



More information about the lbo-talk mailing list