>Chris writes:
>
>> > Apparently, Kaposi (an opportunistic infection) was quite prevalent in
>>> AIDS patients in the 1980s (60% or so), but has since declined
>>> significantly, to 20% or less:
>>
>>So the question is, why did it decline and why did it never show up in more
>>than 60% of the affected population? And I might add: why did it never show
>>with gay "white" men?
>>
>
>
>One more in a series of patently false pieces of misinformation. The problem
>is that when one refutes one, we just move on to another one, so the
>discussion goes nowhere. This is why people begin to express immense
>frustration with the thread.
This thread has outlived its usefulness. Could we bury it?
Doug