Setting aside Winthrop Jordan for the moment, the question I asked concerning working-class racism can be also asked with regard to protectionism in general, I think.
Do workers in a rich industrialized nation like the USA gain _increases in real wages & social programs that outpace rises in productivity_ by practicing more protectionism _even in the very short term_? Note that I am not asking whether they gain increases in nominal wages (which may be lagging behind inflation and/or rises in productivity).
Doug pooh-poohs protectionist critics of NAFTA, etc. who say that free trade agreements have had a negative impact upon American workers at the same time as agreeing with Boushey that her "findings provide empirical support for the argument that it is in the interest of whites and males to maintain their employment privilege because it sustains their higher earnings." It is logical to assert both at the same time?
Yoshie
P.S. I'm cc'ing this to my favorite social scientists, with a view toward getting reinforcements. :-)