Horowitz/Reparations for slavery

[Justin Schwartz]

No, the Holocaust reparations were legislative determinations. Actual 
lawsuits filed in German courts were thrown out precisely because the 
immoral actions of the Nazis violated no law. The suits against thew Swissw 
ere another matter: there, there was enforceable claims to property rights, 
insurance claims and bank accounts and that sort of thing. "Quasi-legal" 
doesn't cut it in courts; Nuremberg was an exception. --jks


>
>Justin writes:
>
> > There is no legal claim, not because the slaves are dead, but because
> > slavery was legal.
>
>So was holocaust-era slave labor.  So was the confiscation of Jewish
>property.  Reparations are political claims in quasi-legal form.  For
>better or worse, their ex post facto legal basis has never been a problem.
>It wasn't in WWI reparations claims against Germany either.
>
>Michael
>
>__________________________________________________________________________
>Michael Pollak................New York City..............mpollak at panix.com
>
>

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