>India's share in the world trade less than 1%.(It's probably 0.50%
>of the world trade) How does India contribute significantly to "the
>First world's" prosperity? How does "the First World" contributes
>significantly to India's poverty?
Excellent questions. I'd really like to hear some good answers from the partisans of the view that it does, but they've been scarce so far.
Doug