> uvj at vsnl.com wrote:
>
> >India's share in the world trade less than 1%.(It's probably 0.50%
> >of the world trade) How does India contribute significantly to "the
> >First world's" prosperity? How does "the First World" contributes
> >significantly to India's poverty?
>
> Excellent questions. I'd really like to hear some good answers from
> the partisans of the view that it does, but they've been scarce so
> far.
>
> Doug
=================
It seems the parties to the dispute are writing past one another with one side making a normative claim and the others attempting to use quantitative measures to refute them. This does not seem fruitful.
Also, it might be help if we disaggregated the units involved in the dependency relationship[s]. It's as problematic to say nations exploit one another as it is to say nations compete with one another. Perhaps we could go the sectoral route and link that to the spatial aspect; a mesodynamics rather than a macrodynamics, the latter just encouraging generalities that may not yield to empirical details.
Ian