Here's my criticism:
You treat exploitation as a conceptual derivative of Marx's "surplus-value" concept. If that concept's not valid, then exploitation disappears, in your view.
In the real world, meanwhile, exploitation is a real fact caused by real power relations. Most people have nothing to sell but their labor-power. Because of this fact, the minority of wealthy investors is able to pay for labor-power (working time) while retaining ownership of labor's products. In the real world, this crucial gap is known as the profit margin on workplace production, and it is the object of immense managerial attention, which is designed to maximize the size of the gap.
You say this reality, the core of exploitation in Marx's terms, doesn't exist.
Really?