> I pointed to the
> psychoanalytic theory of
> greed as an expression of psychopathology as the
> most likely psychology
> underpinning Keynes's claims that ...
I actually hadn't noticed that you referred to pathology -- I thought it was the people disagreeing with you who had made the move from "irrational" to "pathological."
But it's worth mentioning that Freud explains pathological and normal phenomena as different outcomes of the same processes. Giving a psychoanalytic account of greed doesn't necessarily mean calling it pathological. This I think is one of Freud's great contributions.
Tom
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