The NYT aside, I have two questions concerning a real class analysis of American society:
1) To what extent has big corporate capital become depersonalized? I know there are still many privately held firms in this country and that stock ownership is concentrated in the upper-income brackets. But isn't it also true that no individual or family owns enough stock in the really big corporations to exert a controling interest?
2) What percentage of the population lives either exclusively or primarily on the proceeds of capital? The most recent stats I've seen on this are from an article by Dumenil and Levy in the New Left Review of 30 Nov. They state that, even among the top 0.005% income bracket (6,836 households with an income of over $10 million) wages still account for 50.1% of income excluding capital gains, and 25.3% including capital gains. Are their wages really wages in the sense that ordinary people would give the term? -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: <../attachments/20050515/77a65fb9/attachment.htm>