The commentator also noted that 90% of French workplaces are covered by collective agreements negotiated by the unions. I guess that's why I always wrongly assumed French union membership to be quite high, even though there are no closed shop provisions and members can belong to competing organizations in the same enterprise.
Anyone know how the French unions survive on such low memberships? Am I right in assuming the employers are required by law to checkoff dues from all employees - union members and non-members alike - the same kind of arrangement that's known in Canada as the Rand formula?
The hybrid Rand system is better than an open shop full of free riders where unions don't survive very long. But in the absence of closed shops where belonging to the union is a condition of employment, decision-making about the conduct of the union and bargaining with the employers is invariably restricted to a small minority, even if the one most committed to the organization. It would not seem to be the best means of encouraging union democracy and mass participation, but the French experience curiously doesn't seem to bear this out - at least in relation to the latter. Interesting.
MG