[lbo-talk] english question

[Wendy Lyon]

On 9/7/05, joanna <123hop at comcast.net> wrote:
> Is it really ok to use "it's" for "it has"?
> I keep seeing respectable people do it in print, in the NYT, etc.

Can you give an example?  It would be fine to use it in a sentence
such as "it's been a long time", where it obviously stands for "it
has".