[lbo-talk] english question

Thomas Seay entheogens at yahoo.com
Wed Sep 7 08:55:08 PDT 2005


Joanna,

Isn't "it's = it has" used either in the present perfect, ie "he's been here since 10 PM" or, if it is used to indicate possession, it is used with got "she's got nice eyes". In both cases, I should think that context is enough. I mean, I don't recall someone saying, "she's nice eyes". Can you give an example where the context would cause ambiguity?

And, of course, there is the matter of what is "correct" english: the descriptive vs. prescriptive debate.

I dont have the background to answer you definitively on the above, but there's probably someone here who is.

-Thomas --- joanna <123hop at comcast.net> wrote:


> Is it really ok to use "it's" for "it has"?
>
> I keep seeing respectable people do it in print, in
> the NYT, etc.
>
> But is it really correct? If it is, how do you
> distinguish
>
> It's = it is
>
> from
>
> It's = it has
>
> Context won't always help you.
>
> Joanna
>
> ___________________________________
>
http://mailman.lbo-talk.org/mailman/listinfo/lbo-talk
>

______________________________________________________ Click here to donate to the Hurricane Katrina relief effort. http://store.yahoo.com/redcross-donate3/



More information about the lbo-talk mailing list