> Why would you assume that discontent is the
> reason people don't vote? In the U.S., the
> nonvoters are a pretty conservative bunch.
Two different statements here, aren't they? It's certainly not necessary to assume discontentment; it's sufficient to postulate that for the non-voters, the election is not really about anything that matters to them. Now considering the fact that American elections are not really about anything at all, what requires explanation is not the X% who _don't_ vote; it's the 100-X% who do. How to explain this repetition compulsion?
Different issue: nonvoters being "conservative." Has this topic actually been studied? Has it really been established that nonvoters are more "conservative" than voters?
-- --Michael J. Smith --mjs at smithbowen.net
http://stopmebeforeivoteagain.org