>> Assuming the disorderly conduct statute
> is constitutional, wouldn't the kind of
> behavior described in the police report
> qualify as that which one would have
> "reasonable grounds to know that it will,
> or will tend to, alarm, anger or disturb
> others"?
>
> It would only disturb others if they are
> sexually insecure and nobody has a way of
> divining that ahead of time.
>
> Should I have every female who has ever
> hit on me arrested for disturbing me?
>
That's not a proper analogy. I am afraid, you are skipping past the careful distinctions in WD's message. The conduct in question is not "hitting on the cop" but peeping through the door multiple times. Sexual insecurity has nothing to do with that. Perhaps body + body function insecurity ;-).
--ravi