[lbo-talk] The Rights of Baby Boys

[ravi]

On Dec 13, 2007, at 4:08 PM, John Thornton wrote:
> ravi wrote:
>>
>>
>> So, while it may be possible to have orgasms without penile
>> stimulation, that does not negate the claim that penile stimulation
>> leads to orgasm. And if penile stimulation reduces to the stimulation
>> of nerve endings or some such, and if their number and sensitivity
>> matter, then their removal reduces penile stimulation an hence one
>> avenue to orgasms.
>>
>
> I know penile stimulation can lead to orgasm in men. The question is  
> is
> a reduction in nerve endings equal to a reduction in sexual pleasure?
> I know of no good reason to make that claim.
>

The legitimacy of that idea (or some variation of it) does not seem to  
be in dispute as per the original article. So I take it as a matter of  
scientific consensus that the amputated parts contributes  
significantly in whatever way stimulation is defined.


> Imagine if you could achieve orgasm by someone running a duster with  
> 100
> feathers down your back. Now if someone ran a duster with 60 feathers
> down your back would the orgasm be only 60% as intense?
> I can think of no reason to believe it would be yet this is in essence
> the claim being made. Stimulate X number of fewer penile nerves and  
> have
> an orgasm reduced by X%.

I am not sure the argument is based only on a count of nerve endings.

	--ravi