But Marx says the surplus value does not rightfully belong to the worker.
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If by "right" you mean, under the system of laws legislated by bourgeois politicians within a capitalist class dominated society that Marx recognizes the worker has no legal right to the surplus value produced by labour then, yes. That could be deduced from Marx's writings and political activity. On the other hand, if you mean that Marx was arguing that the producer has no rational claim to the social product of labour, you've seriously misread the critique of political-economy which KM presents.
Mike B)
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