>
> On Nov 28, 2007, at 4:15 PM, Jerry Monaco wrote:
>
> > I'm not sure what Doug means when he says, "There's plenty of
> > evidence that
> > poor people aren't all that unhappy - and that money doesn't make
> > people
> > happier." Surely he must define "poor" in a limited way.
>
> I'm referring to the so-called "economics of happiness" literature,
> which shows that economic growth has not made people in given
> countries happier over time, and which shows that rich people aren't
> always all that much happier than poor people.
>
>
>
Yes, but again you don't answer the question if you exclude the "miserably poor." Surely you must. And you probably do take into account the historical question of when and where the very possibility that the poor "might" be happy occurs. But you don't respond to this aspect of my post. So can I assume you have taken this into account?
Jerry