Duh. If you can find an instance in the Physics or Metaphysics where Aristotle actually USES the system of organizing knowledge set forth in the logical works... The logical works are not meant to be "epistemological" works in the modern sense at all. They are a means of presenting already acquired knowledge in a coherent fashion. At no (or almost no) point in Aristotle's philosophizing is this system actually used. Read Book I of the Physics. Good luck finding syllogisms or arguing from first principles. Rather, he argues from doxa, what the wise men say.
--- On Fri, 3/20/09, Eubulides <autoplectic at gmail.com> wrote:
> From: Eubulides <autoplectic at gmail.com>
> Subject: Re: [lbo-talk] Glenn Beck breaks down in tears, blubbers on-air AGAIN
> To: lbo-talk at lbo-talk.org
> Date: Friday, March 20, 2009, 1:24 PM
> On Fri, Mar 20, 2009 at 10:17 AM,
> Chris Doss <lookoverhere1 at yahoo.com>
> wrote:
> >
> > Have you guys ever actually read Aristotle? In
> contrast to his logical works, his actual philosophizing is
> not foundationalistic at all. Half the arguments seem to be
> appeals to doxa. That's why Heidegger liked him so much and
> modelled his work after his.
>
> =================
>
> Uh, the Posterior Analytics [you can't make this shit up!]
> could
> easily be read as being "foundationalist" in it's approach
> to the
> problems of knowledge.....
>
> And we're done.
>
> Ian
>
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