[lbo-talk] My Aristotle rant, was: Re: Glenn Beck breaks down in tears, blubbers on-air AGAIN

Philip Pilkington pilkingtonphil at gmail.com
Sun Mar 29 20:35:13 PDT 2009


On Mon, Mar 30, 2009 at 4:27 AM, Shane Mage <shmage at pipeline.com> wrote:


>
> On Fri, Mar 27, 2009 at 3:11 AM, Chris Doss <lookoverhere1 at yahoo.com>
>> wrote:
>>
>>> The Greeks and pre-Christians
>>> in general did not define "being a happy person" (Diogenes
>>> notwithstanding;
>>> we're speaking generally) with one's internal "feelings" at all.
>>>
>>
> I think this is quite right. But what the Greeks (and Romans) meant by a
> "happy" (well-daimoned, or fortunate, or blessed) life seems to vary
> widely--from the phrase attributed to Solon "think no man happy until he is
> dead" to the declaration of the Chorus in *Oedipus at Colonnus* "the best is
> never to be born, next is to die immediately after birth..." passing by the
> Epicurean concept of the happy life as one devoid of strong internal
> "feelings." And then there was the role of Tuche, the Romans' great goddess
> Fortuna.
>
>
>
Okay, maybe - I disagree, but let's put that, as they say, under erasure. Let's say that they all meant different things by these concepts. Here's the question which no one has answered (except me, I think, by alluding to Freud and cultural norms/myths)... what do these terms MEAN in concrete terms?



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