>
>
> Philip Pilkington wrote:
> >
>
> > Anyways, I mentioned a while ago in a different context that the extreme
> > manifestations of violence we see today (school shootings etc.)
>
> What evidence do you have that the level of violence is significantly
> greater now than (say) 70 years ago? Not anedotal evidence from
> headlines but hard data. This is an empirical question regarding
> comparison of distinct periods of time. I doubt very much byself that
> violence has increased in any significant way.
>
> Carrol
>
No, it probably hasn't increased. In fact I'd be shocked if it had. But then we're talking about two different time periods with two completely different institutional/class formations and hence two completely different levels of socialisation. What I'm trying to compare is the manner in which, how shall I put it, the "discontent in civilisation" is expressed by those of us who have been/should have been socialised properly. Basically, those of us who have obtained a certain level of education/socialisation/civilisation. The absolute number will, of course, be higher today... of that I have no doubt. But the degree, the quality of socialisation is far, far lower.
To be honest the only way you could really measure this quantitatively is, in classic Durkheimian fashion, through the suicide stats - which tell interesting tales, by the way. You could also try addiction rates among the socialised - indeed, criminalisation could be read through this lens. But by simply viewing how our institutions function, how our manners function and how we treat each other on a day-to-day basis a lot can be told about how well integrated we are.