> That the Leviticus passage doesn't mention female homoeroticism
> (never, ever, condemned in any form until that gonif Paul) or even
> extend its condemnation to passive homosexuality or pederasty proves
> its specifically cultist purpose.
Hmm. It "proves" it? The double standard on male vs. female homosexuality has a long history, all the way up to the present day. Not just in ancient Israel. So the double standard in the Bible could also "prove" that these recurrent preoccupations with the healthiness/hygiene of (male) homosexuality come from "deeper" cultural structures of ordering than any that could be the products of 18th and 19th century European imperialism or animosity towards a rival Palestinian cult.
SA