> > -- [Shakespeare] recast the tragic mode from the classical heroic
> > ability-to-meet-fate, to the more modern form of tragedy as existential
> > paradox.
What on earth is this supposed to mean? Not a rhetorical question.
I'm thinking Oedipous Tyrannos, Agamemnon, Macbeth -- none of 'em fits the description above, as far as I can tell.
Oh and this idea that Shakespeare "recast" or changed the direction of anything seems quite wrong, purely as a matter of literary history. Where's the Shakespearian school, the Shakespearian tendency, the Shakespearian movement? Who's like Shakespeare?
The Shake's a lot like Marlowe -- just a lot better at it. Cf. Bach & Buxtehude.
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Michael Smith mjs at smithbowen.net http://stopmebeforeivoteagain.org http://fakesprogress.blogspot.com