>As for the 1960's, the fact that the US was the leading Imperialist
>power, it could not afford to alianate the emerging "Third
>World"
How does this make sense? Being the leading imperialist power is by definition alienating. Where is this concern about alienation expressed in U.S. actions in Latin America at anytime in the last 100 plus years, much less in the '60s?
>Nonetheless, the history of the past twenty-years, with its
>neo-liberalism and regression of social rights supports my and
>Wojeks arguement.
Only twenty years? What happened in 1990 that supports your "arguement"?