> Put crudely, a feudal lord had fewer constaints on how he util8ized
> the labor of his serfs than does a corportion on its ustilization of
> its labaor force. Someone should be able to punch a few holes inthat,
> moving us, perhaps, towards a better terminology.
I'm coming in a little late on this conversation, so perhaps I'm missing the point. But with all respect, the formulation above is dead wrong. A feudal lord had *more* constraints in his treatment of the labor force than a modern corporation.
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Michael J. Smith mjs at smithbowen.net http://stopmebeforeivoteagain.org http://fakesprogress.blogspot.com