[lbo-talk] Americans and the bible

[Jeffrey Fisher]

Yeah, it's clearly for reference. As far as I know, it's essentially
universal, at this point. *If* you use chapter and verse divisions, you use
these (including in Tanakh in Hebrew). It (probably) came into Hebrew Bibles
in part as a result of the debates rabbis were forced to have with
Christians, usually in church, in front of a Christian audience.
Fortunately, we have Jewish accounts of such things, too. See Falaquera's
_Epistle of the Debate_.

The Hebrew titles of the books of Torah are just the first word. So
"Bereshit" ("In/At the beginning") for Genesis.

On Thu, Mar 25, 2010 at 7:04 PM, Chris Doss <lookoverhere1 at yahoo.com> wrote:


> I sort of suspected that. Was this something to do with liturgy, or with
> ease of reference? (E.g., you wouldn't have to write out "and Jesus said
> blah blah blah," you could just write "Chapter X Verse Y"?)
>
> Are divisions constant across translations and chuches?
>
>
> ----- Original Message ----
> From: Jeffrey Fisher <jeff.jfisher at gmail.com>
> To: lbo-talk at lbo-talk.org
> Sent: Fri, March 26, 2010 1:06:18 AM
> Subject: Re: [lbo-talk] Americans and the bible
>
> much later. Chapter divisions in the 13th century, and modern versification
> and numbering in the middle of the 16th century. There are longer
> traditions
> of something like paragraphing in both the NT and Tanakh (including
> numbering), but neither has anything to do with the modern divisions.
>
>
>
>
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