Is the assumption here that better instruction would lead to 100% performance by all students on the reading tests? And if that is not the assumption, what is the basis on which these results are found unsatisgfactory.
A re some sizeable sector of the population incapable of achieving the reading skill they "should" achieve? Why?
I really cannot see why the test results are disturbint. What do people want and why do they want it?
I'm not satisfied with my formulation of these questions, but I'm going to keep coming back with variations of them until I am satisfied.
I will say this: Anyone who has not formulatged these questions for him/herself is being stupid. The mere figures have no meaning until they are analyzed within a clear frame that defines significance.
I am beginning, from trying to make sense of this thread, to get a glimpse of what Marx meant when he wrote that abstraction was the method for studying social questions. But there have been no abstractions arrived at in this thread, and the lack of careful abstraction leads to mere stuttering. Empirical generalizations are NOT abstractions, merely preliminary data, and have, in themselves, no intelligible content. In other words, the statement that X% of a population cannot read critically does not constitute knowledge of anything. It has no meaning until placed in the proper theoretical or abstract context. That has not been done in this thread, which is why it seems to me to be mere stuttering.
Carrol