I'm sure it's been written about a hundred times -- is there a generally excepted consensus about the origin of the white supremacy ideology? I've always assumed that it arose as a justification for the slave trade in Africans. Is that accurate?
Merry (Western) Christmas by the way! We don't have it until early January.
--- wrobert at uci.edu wrote:
> I'm not in complete disagreement with Carrol's
> statement. There is
> probably something uniquely important in posing an
> opposition to the
> "ideology of european (white) supremacy." This is
> related to Europe's
> role in the production of the current world system.
> However, it takes a
> certain level of analytical blindness to argue that
> "There is ethnic
> conflict all over, which has nothing to do with
> racism", which ignores the
> influence that colonialism has on shaping the ethnic
> rivalries throughout
> the world. (I am thinking about the influence of
> fascism on the Hindu
> right in India in particular, but there are many
> other examples.) robert
> wood
>
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